100 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS RELATED TO INDIAN LEGAL SYSTEM

Which of the following is the supreme law of India?
A) Indian Penal Code
B) Constitution of India
C) Code of Criminal Procedure
D) Indian Evidence Act
Answer: B) Constitution of India

The Indian legal system is primarily based on which legal system?
A) Roman law
B) Common law
C) Civil law
D) Canon law
Answer: B) Common law

The power to amend the Constitution of India lies with:
A) The President of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Parliament of India
D) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: C) The Parliament of India

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the fundamental rights of citizens?
A) Article 12-35
B) Article 32-35
C) Article 14-32
D) Article 19-22
Answer: C) Article 14-32

The directive principles of state policy are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part V
D) Part VI
Answer: B) Part IV

The Indian legal system is administered by:
A) The President
B) The Judiciary
C) The Prime Minister
D) The Legislature
Answer: B) The Judiciary

The highest court of appeal in India is:
A) The High Court
B) The District Court
C) The Supreme Court
D) The Sessions Court
Answer: C) The Supreme Court

The legal system in India is influenced by the legal system of which country?
A) France
B) United States
C) England
D) China
Answer: C) England

The Indian Penal Code was enacted in the year:
A) 1858
B) 1860
C) 1950
D) 1947
Answer: B) 1860

Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
A) The President of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Chief Justice himself/herself
D) The Parliament of India
Answer: A) The President of India

The term ‘writ’ is derived from which language?
A) Latin
B) Greek
C) Sanskrit
D) French
Answer: A) Latin

The power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights is vested in which court?
A) District Court
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Session Court
Answer: C) Supreme Court

Which of the following is not a fundamental duty as per the Indian Constitution?
A) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
B) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
C) To vote in elections
D) To safeguard public property and abjure violence
Answer: C) To vote in elections

Which article in the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law?
A) Article 12
B) Article 14
C) Article 16
D) Article 18
Answer: B) Article 14

The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed in which year?
A) 2002
B) 2005
C) 2010
D) 2015
Answer: B) 2005

The legal principle of ‘innocent until proven guilty’ is a part of which legal concept in India?
A) Presumption of innocence
B) Burden of proof
C) Adverse possession
D) Due process
Answer: A) Presumption of innocence

Which legislation deals primarily with intellectual property rights in India?
A) Patents Act
B) Copyright Act
C) Trademarks Act
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

The Law Commission of India is constituted under the:
A) Ministry of Law and Justice
B) Supreme Court of India
C) President of India
D) Parliament of India
Answer: A) Ministry of Law and Justice

Who appoints the Attorney General of India?
A) The President of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Chief Justice of India
D) The Parliament of India
Answer: A) The President of India

Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of languages?
A) First Schedule
B) Second Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Tenth Schedule
Answer: C) Eighth Schedule

Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Education
C) Right against Exploitation
D) Right to Property
Answer: D) Right to Property

The doctrine of ‘Separation of Powers’ is not expressly mentioned in the Indian Constitution but is implied from which part?
A) Preamble
B) Directive Principles of State Policy
C) Fundamental Rights
D) Seventh Schedule
Answer: D) Seventh Schedule

The term of office of a Judge of the Supreme Court is until they reach the age of:
A) 60 years
B) 62 years
C) 65 years
D) Retirement is not based on age
Answer: C) 65 years

Which Indian legislation deals specifically with environmental protection and related issues?
A) Environment Protection Act
B) Forest Conservation Act
C) Wildlife Protection Act
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

The authority responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges in the High Courts lies with the:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Governor of the State
Answer: A) President of India

What is the term of office for the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 8 years
D) Until the age of 65 years
Answer: C) 6 years

The power to declare a law unconstitutional in India lies with:
A) The President
B) The Prime Minister
C) The Judiciary
D) The Legislature
Answer: C) The Judiciary

The Indian legal system follows which type of legal system?
A) Adversarial system
B) Inquisitorial system
C) Accusatorial system
D) Consensual system
Answer: A) Adversarial system

Who among the following has the power to issue ordinances when the Parliament is not in session?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: A) President of India

The first woman Chief Justice of a High Court in India was:
A) Justice Ruma Pal
B) Justice Leila Seth
C) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra
D) Justice M. Fathima Beevi
Answer: D) Justice M. Fathima Beevi

The power to remove the Vice President of India before the expiry of their term rests with:
A) The President of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Parliament of India
D) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: C) The Parliament of India

The minimum number of judges required for deciding any case involving a substantial question of law before the Supreme Court is:
A) One
B) Three
C) Five
D) Seven
Answer: B) Three

The Indian legal system allows for the establishment of separate personal laws for different religious communities under which provision?
A) Article 25
B) Article 29
C) Article 44
D) Article 51A
Answer: A) Article 25

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and term of the Governor of a State?
A) Article 153
B) Article 161
C) Article 164
D) Article 170
Answer: A) Article 153

The power to conduct inquiries into cases of corruption and other malpractices by public servants lies with:
A) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
B) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
C) Lokpal
D) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
Answer: A) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

The legal doctrine of ‘Parens Patriae’ refers to the:
A) State as the guardian of public interest
B) Presumption of innocence until proven guilty
C) Duty of citizens to serve the nation
D) Right to fair trial
Answer: A) State as the guardian of public interest

The number of schedules in the Indian Constitution at its commencement was:
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15
Answer: B) 10

Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes?
A) Fifth Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule
Answer: A) Fifth Schedule

The term ‘Public Interest Litigation (PIL)’ was coined by which country?
A) India
B) United States
C) United Kingdom
D) Australia
Answer: A) India

The Advocate General of a State is appointed by:
A) The President of India
B) The Governor of the State
C) The Chief Justice of the High Court
D) The Chief Minister of the State
Answer: B) The Governor of the State

The right to constitutional remedies is guaranteed under which article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 32
B) Article 34
C) Article 36
D) Article 38
Answer: A) Article 32

Which Indian legislation deals with consumer protection and rights?
A) Competition Act
B) Consumer Protection Act
C) Contract Act
D) Sale of Goods Act
Answer: B) Consumer Protection Act

Who has the power to appoint judges of the District Courts in India?
A) The President of India
B) The Governor of the State
C) The Chief Justice of the High Court
D) The Prime Minister of India
Answer: B) The Governor of the State

What is the term duration for a Member of Parliament (MP) in the Rajya Sabha?
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
Answer: C) 6 years

Which among the following is not a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution?
A) To promote scientific temper
B) To safeguard public property
C) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of life
D) To vote in elections
Answer: D) To vote in elections

The principles of natural justice primarily include:
A) Right to a fair trial
B) Right to free speech
C) Right to privacy
D) Right against self-incrimination
Answer: A) Right to a fair trial

The concept of ‘double jeopardy’ means:
A) Being tried twice for the same offense
B) Being accused by two different parties for the same offense
C) Having two separate charges for the same offense
D) Being punished twice for the same offense
Answer: A) Being tried twice for the same offense

The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged by:
A) The President of India
B) The Parliament of India
C) The Prime Minister of India
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: B) The Parliament of India

The Supreme Court of India can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights against:
A) Only the State
B) Any individual
C) Only government officials
D) Both the State and individuals
Answer: D) Both the State and individuals

Who has the power to conduct an impeachment process against the President of India?
A) The Lok Sabha
B) The Rajya Sabha
C) The Supreme Court
D) The Parliament
Answer: D) The Parliament

The term ‘Due Process of Law’ in the Indian Constitution is included under:
A) Article 12
B) Article 14
C) Article 19
D) Article 21
Answer: D) Article 21

The ‘Doctrine of Eclipse’ in Indian jurisprudence means:
A) Overruling a previous judgment by the Supreme Court
B) Invalidating a law inconsistent with fundamental rights
C) Application of laws in certain territories
D) Temporary suspension of a law
Answer: B) Invalidating a law inconsistent with fundamental rights

The Right to Education Act (RTE) in India was enacted in the year:
A) 2005
B) 2009
C) 2010
D) 2012
Answer: B) 2009

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted during the rule of:
A) Queen Victoria
B) King Edward VII
C) Queen Elizabeth II
D) King George V
Answer: A) Queen Victoria

Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
A) The Chief Justice of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) The Vice President of India
Answer: A) The Chief Justice of India

Which among the following is a fundamental duty added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act?
A) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
B) To protect and improve the natural environment
C) To provide opportunities for education to children
D) To respect the national flag and the national anthem
Answer: B) To protect and improve the natural environment

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India is constituted under:
A) A parliamentary act
B) The Constitution of India
C) An ordinance by the President
D) An executive order by the Prime Minister
Answer: A) A parliamentary act

The term ‘quorum’ in a parliamentary context refers to the:
A) Minimum number of members required to pass a bill
B) Minimum number of members required to conduct business
C) Maximum number of members allowed in a session
D) Minimum number of members required for a debate
Answer: B) Minimum number of members required to conduct business

The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a separate High Court for which Union Territory?
A) Delhi
B) Puducherry
C) Chandigarh
D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: A) Delhi

The term ‘res judicata’ refers to:
A) A matter already judged and decided
B) A judge’s final verdict
C) A legal dispute without resolution
D) A court’s jurisdiction over a case
Answer: A) A matter already judged and decided

Which amendment to the Indian Constitution introduced the Panchayati Raj system?
A) 73rd Amendment
B) 74th Amendment
C) 75th Amendment
D) 76th Amendment
Answer: A) 73rd Amendment

Who has the power to remove the Vice President of India from office before the expiry of the term?
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister of India
C) Parliament of India
D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: C) Parliament of India

The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is used primarily to:
A) Seek compensation for damages
B) Prevent a person from leaving the country
C) Protect individuals from unlawful detention
D) Force a person to testify in court
Answer: C) Protect individuals from unlawful detention

The Legal Services Authorities Act was passed in India to provide:
A) Legal aid and services to the economically backward
B) Better salaries for judges
C) Reforms in the Indian Penal Code
D) Measures for judicial accountability
Answer: A) Legal aid and services to the economically backward

The principle of ‘Locus Standi’ refers to:
A) A person’s right to sue
B) A court’s jurisdiction
C) A law’s applicability
D) A judge’s authority
Answer: A) A person’s right to sue

The concept of ‘Separation of Powers’ in India implies a division among:
A) Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary
B) Federal and State Governments
C) Prime Minister and President
D) Civil and Criminal Jurisdictions
Answer: A) Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary

The power to pardon a person convicted of a crime lies with:
A) The President of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Governor of the State
D) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: A) The President of India

Which article in the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality before the law?
A) Article 12
B) Article 14
C) Article 16
D) Article 20
Answer: B) Article 14

The term ‘Public Interest Litigation’ was first introduced in which Indian case?
A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Answer: A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

The ‘Swaraj Bill’ or ‘Self-Government Bill’ aimed at implementing local self-governance was introduced by:
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Motilal Nehru
Answer: C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by:
A) The President of India
B) The Governor of the State
C) The Chief Justice of India
D) The Prime Minister of India
Answer: A) The President of India

Which amendment to the Indian Constitution made education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years?
A) 86th Amendment
B) 92nd Amendment
C) 93rd Amendment
D) 97th Amendment
Answer: C) 93rd Amendment

The power to regulate the admission and conduct of legal practitioners in courts is vested in:
A) Bar Council of India
B) Attorney General of India
C) Law Commission of India
D) Central Government
Answer: A) Bar Council of India

The term ‘PIL’ (Public Interest Litigation) can be filed by:
A) Only individuals affected directly by an issue
B) Any individual or organization acting on behalf of public interest
C) Government authorities exclusively
D) Only legal professionals
Answer: B) Any individual or organization acting on behalf of public interest

The Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights and made a legal right by the:
A) 44th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 62nd Amendment
Answer: A) 44th Amendment

The doctrine of ‘Stare Decisis’ refers to:
A) Decision based on moral principles
B) Decision based on earlier precedents
C) Decision by the majority opinion
D) Decision by the presiding judge
Answer: B) Decision based on earlier precedents

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under:
A) An executive order by the President
B) A resolution by the Chief Justice of India
C) An Act of Parliament
D) A directive from the Prime Minister
Answer: C) An Act of Parliament

The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ applies to the removal of which official?
A) Chief Justice of a High Court
B) Governor of a State
C) President of India
D) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
Answer: B) Governor of a State

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, does not apply to proceedings under which of the following?
A) Arbitration
B) Criminal trials
C) Civil trials
D) All of the above
Answer: A) Arbitration

The ‘Golden Triangle’ in the Indian legal system refers to:
A) The interconnection between the Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary
B) A geographic region with high crime rates
C) A network of prominent law universities
D) An area known for legal activism and PILs
Answer: D) An area known for legal activism and PILs

The Supreme Court of India has the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights under which article of the Constitution?
A) Article 31
B) Article 32
C) Article 33
D) Article 35
Answer: B) Article 32

The term ‘Lok Adalat’ refers to:
A) A court for tribal disputes
B) A people’s court for social matters
C) A special court for financial disputes
D) A court for environmental disputes
Answer: B) A people’s court for social matters

Which article in the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
A) Article 15
B) Article 16
C) Article 17
D) Article 18
Answer: A) Article 15

The Protection of Human Rights Act in India was enacted in the year:
A) 1990
B) 1993
C) 1996
D) 2001
Answer: B) 1993

The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of:
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Council of Ministers
Answer: A) Prime Minister of India

The doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ deals with:
A) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
B) Interpretation of fundamental rights
C) Constitutional amendments
D) Division of powers between the Executive and the Judiciary
Answer: A) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

The ‘Three-tier Panchayati Raj System’ does not include:
A) Gram Panchayat
B) Panchayat Samiti
C) Zila Parishad
D) Urban Local Bodies
Answer: D) Urban Local Bodies

The Attorney General of India holds the office during the pleasure of:
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister of India
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Parliament of India
Answer: A) President of India

The ‘Doctrine of Eclipse’ means that a law inconsistent with the Constitution is:
A) Invalid from its inception
B) Invalid only in part
C) Invalid until rectified by the Legislature
D) Invalid until approved by the Judiciary
Answer: A) Invalid from its inception

The ‘Doctrine of Waiver’ in law refers to the voluntary relinquishment of:
A) A legal right
B) A legal obligation
C) Judicial review
D) Judicial precedence
Answer: A) A legal right

The power to declare a law unconstitutional rests with:
A) The President
B) The Prime Minister
C) The Supreme Court
D) The Parliament
Answer: C) The Supreme Court

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is located in:
A) Geneva, Switzerland
B) New York, USA
C) The Hague, Netherlands
D) London, UK
Answer: C) The Hague, Netherlands

Which amendment to the Indian Constitution introduced the concept of Judicial Review?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
Answer: A) 24th Amendment

The term ‘Recusal’ in legal parlance refers to:
A) Rejecting an appeal
B) Disqualification of a judge from a case due to bias or conflict of interest
C) Acceptance of an appeal
D) Withdrawing a petition
Answer: B) Disqualification of a judge from a case due to bias or conflict of interest

The jurisdiction of a High Court can be extended to a Union Territory by:
A) The President of India
B) The Governor of the concerned state
C) The Parliament of India
D) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: C) The Parliament of India

The ‘Nirbhaya Fund’ in India is specifically aimed at:
A) Women’s empowerment and safety
B) Education for the underprivileged
C) Healthcare infrastructure
D) Rural development
Answer: A) Women’s empowerment and safety

The process of redrawing electoral boundaries based on population changes is known as:
A) Reorganization
B) Reservation
C) Delimitation
D) Realignment
Answer: C) Delimitation

The ‘Doctrine of Estoppel’ prevents a person from:
A) Defending their rights
B) Contradicting their own previous statement or action
C) Seeking legal advice
D) Exercising their freedom of speech
Answer: B) Contradicting their own previous statement or action

The ‘Doctrine of Territorial Nexus’ states that a law is applicable within a territory based on:
A) Geographical proximity
B) Historical significance
C) Cultural ties
D) The legislative authority of the territory
Answer: A) Geographical proximity

The term ‘Sub Judice’ refers to a matter that is:
A) Under consideration by a court and awaiting a decision
B) Subject to a statutory provision
C) A precedent-setting case
D) Beyond the jurisdiction of the court
Answer: A) Under consideration by a court and awaiting a decision

The term ‘Remand’ in legal proceedings refers to:
A) The release of an accused on bail
B) The transfer of a case to a higher court
C) The return of a case to a lower court for further proceedings
D) The presentation of evidence by the prosecution
Answer: C) The return of a case to a lower court for further proceedings

The ‘Doctrine of Laches’ in law refers to:
A) The balance of convenience
B) The limitation period for filing an appeal
C) The delay in asserting one’s legal rights, leading to the loss of a remedy
D) The process of mediation in civil disputes
Answer: C) The delay in asserting one’s legal rights, leading to the loss of a remedy

The ‘Vicarious Liability’ principle holds:
A) Employers responsible for the actions of their employees during work hours
B) Companies responsible for environmental damage caused by natural disasters
C) Courts responsible for ensuring fair trials
D) Parents responsible for their children’s actions at all times
Answer: A) Employers responsible for the actions of their employees during work hours

The ‘Inter-State Council’ in India is constituted under the chairmanship of:
A) The President of India
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Chief Justice of India
D) The Home Minister of India
Answer: B) The Prime Minister of India

The ‘Doctrine of Ultra Vires’ refers to:
A) Acts beyond the powers conferred
B) Judicial interference in legislative matters
C) The authority to overrule precedents
D) The power of the President to veto legislation
Answer: A) Acts beyond the powers conferred

The Indian Contract Act, 1872, is based on which legal system?
A) Roman law
B) Common law
C) Civil law
D) Islamic law
Answer: B) Common law

The ‘Doctrine of Election’ applies to cases involving:
A) Political elections
B) Choice between remedies in civil cases
C) Corporate governance
D) International treaties
Answer: B) Choice between remedies in civil cases

The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of an Advocate General for each:
A) State
B) Union Territory
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Answer: A) State

The ‘Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel’ prevents:
A) A person from changing their testimony in court
B) A party from denying their promise if the other party has relied on it to their detriment
C) A defendant from appealing a court’s decision
D) A witness from providing false information
Answer: B) A party from denying their promise if the other party has relied on it to their detriment

The ‘Bench’ in a court refers to:
A) The physical furniture used by judges and lawyers
B) A panel of judges hearing a case
C) The bar association in the courtroom
D) The gallery for spectators
Answer: B) A panel of judges hearing a case